1 Answer
- Newest
- Most votes
- Most comments
0
If you are calling Lambda function #2 from Lambda function #1, there shouldn't be a reason why you would want to use a Function URL (which would require you to trigger the function via a Sigv4 signed HTTPS request).
Instead, I would suggest updating Lambda function #1 to make an SDK call to invoke the Lambda function #2 directly.
Lambda functin #1 is more for orchestration purposes, and lambda function #2 has the actual service implementation.
Relevant content
- asked 8 months ago
- Accepted Answerasked a year ago
- What's the difference between Lambda function execution role permissions and invocation permissions?AWS OFFICIALUpdated 2 years ago
- AWS OFFICIALUpdated 3 years ago
- AWS OFFICIALUpdated 2 years ago
Can you post your policies?